Jesus Christ had pronouns: "I am He."
If you're reading it in English, "I" and "He" most certainly are pronouns. Parts of speech do indeed survive translation.
“If you’re reading it English” - Jesus spoke Aramaic. The New Testament is in Greek. So….if you’re reading it in English it’s gone through a minimum of 2 translations and making a claim about pronouns for your political ends is not respectful of the doctrine.
I'm not making any "political claim" at all. Pronouns are parts of speech, and the descriptors "I" and "he" had to have similar meanings in the original, to translate as we read them now. Are you suggesting that first-person singular pronouns meant something else in Biblical times?
“He” is literally not part of the translation. There is no “he” in the Greek. At all. If you want to talk “I”, sure. In fact, any emphasis on the “he” takes away from the “I am.”